Or, who is it that has determined that it is the union's jurisdiction to decide who is to be ordained? Who granted the unions that authority? Is it not the GC? And does not the acknowledgement of this point entirely moot the contention that the GC is beyond its jurisdiction in restricting ordination to men?
There are couple of reasons why the qluestion does not become moot.
1) The rights of the Unions to decide who shall be ordained and who shall not be ordained in established in the Union Constitutions, as I understand it.
2) Those Union Constitutions, may be considered to be approved due to their compliance with the GC Model Constitutions and their history in which the GC did not object to them when they were put in place.
3) Once those Constitutions were put in place, they could only be ammended by a vote of the people in meetings called to ammend them.
4) For those who might disagree with # 3, I would point out that in no case has the GC ever attempted to have such a provision of a Union Constitution removed. IOW, the GC has allowed such to remain.
5) In the United States, the Unions have been established as legal organizations. Under U.S. law, the operating rules which govern the operation of the Unions rest in the Union Constitutions. NOTE: I am well aware that it can be argued as to what authority the U.S. courts would have to intrepret and enforce the Unon Constitutions. Yet I will point out that the U.S. Courts do become involved in property issue in denominations that split and they have ruled on both sides as a matter of interest.
6) The GC has a history of allowing Constitutions to differ from the Model Constiltutions. When I was a mlnister in the Potomac Conference, many years ago, a GC proposal in the form of a change to the Model Constitution came before the Potomac meeting. The people soundly voted to reject that proposal. The only recourse that the GC took was to continue to bring the proposal in future meetings, until the people finally did vote that change in.