Johann: May I pose a question to you or anyone else who is pro-woman clergy?
How could the Apostle Paul been any more clearer on the issue of women clergy?
Are we to assume the Apostle Paul was wrong and that God did not actually inspire Paul to set the standards and requirements of ordination?
Johann: Do you support divorcees to be ordained?
Again, most Southern Baptist an even FreeWill Baptist are opposed to divorced clergy. I also stand firm that a divorced man should not be ordained. I have a point in asking this question.
Gladly, Alex. Your questions are a challenge - and a special challenge to a person who loves the Lord and His Word.
Tell me first what you think Paul is saying, and on what basis you believe that is what he is saying. Why do you think Paul is also saying that a female deacon is to be treated exactly the same as a male?
If you are using the King James Bible you will notice that three words in 1 Tim 3:11, namely
must, their, and be are all written in italics. Some editions are honest enough to admit that words in italics were not in the original writings, such as Paul's, but were supplied by a translator. Is that really honesty?
For the word given here as "wives" Paul himself used the word "Gynaikas" - and would you believe it, Alex, but the verse itself starts with this word, as written by Paul. The word means Women, but you have to add all of those words that are not there to get the meaning that these women are wives. The next word Paul uses is "ousautous" and then "semnas".
"Women likewise grave. . . " So, Alex it seems obvious as daylight to me that Paul is making it clear that exactly the same principles apply to female deacons as to male deacons. And, as you know from Acts these deacons were also preaching and baptizing, or doing the same work as a pastor today. But if you make the application as done by the Catholic Church then the priest or father is of an entirely different caliber, something that has nothing to do with the deacon or bishop in the Christian Church. The Catholic priest is a miracle maker, a magician, who needs a special ordination for that. Is that what Paul is talking about? A Christian pastor is not a miracle maker. The exception could be Danny Shelton who is taking people on a cruise to the Caribbeans teaching them something he thinks is miracles.
Now you read the chapter again and see what it says about ordination. I don't find that word there. Do you? Why not?
Now to your next question, Alex, which could be problematic to some. Paul has something to say, although not too much, and then he adds that what he does say is just his own opinion because the good Lord hadn't given him any information on the subject. That doesn't help you too much, does it? Could it be that Paul wrote 1 Corinthians before he'd seen the Gospels? Because that is where you get information from Jesus Himself.
But, lets take a case. A boy and a girl from good homes and church decide they want to be together in the ministry of the Gospel. After high school they get married and get an apartment close to a Cristian college/university. So they start preparing, and he hardly notices what is happening to her, until he finds a note from her that she will not return. He finds out she has moved in with a law student and that she is pregnant. Later he gets a letter from her telling him she lost courage with the requirements for a pastor's wife, and that her present friend would soon get rich as a lawyer offering her a better life.
What would you do in his case? Examine yourself and go to the Scriptures for help? I'd go to
Matthew 5:32
But here is what I tell you. Anyone who divorces his wife causes her to commit adultery. And anyone who gets married to the divorced woman commits adultery. A man may divorce his wife only if she has not been faithful to him.
If everything went just like that the case is clear. He has the full right to divorce his wife, and it seems fairly clear to me that he is a free man who can continue preparing for the ministry. The Lord Himself says he has the right to divorce the unfaithful wife. Wouldn't this imply that he also has the right to marry another woman if she has not been defiled by her unfaithfulness in a previous marriage?
If some people do not see it that way on what authority do they base their decision?
Jesus makes it even clearer by repeating the same words in Matt. 9:9. He wants us to be sure we get it.
If the boy had just been making up the story about his wife to get rid of her, then he is a liar and unfit for anything. So would he also if he'd been beating up his wife in anger. That is not being faithful to your wife.
Now you have my definition. Do you have a better one? I'd say nobody should follow my definition but study the Word of God for himself and make his own definition in prayer before the throne.