Nowhere does it state "their wives" or anything like it.
1 Peter 3:7 Likewise, ye husbands, dwell with them according to knowledge, giving honour unto the wife, as unto the weaker vessel, and as being heirs together of the grace of life; that your prayers be not hindered.
In this verse it is understood that the woman referred to belongs to the husband referred top, even without a possessive pronoun.
Colossians 3:19 Husbands, love
your wives, and be not bitter against them.
"Your" is supplied by the translators, but definitely called for in the above verse.
The critical text for Eph. 5:25 also does not have the possessive pronoun, though the Textus Receptus does.
In 1 Cor. 7:10, 11, 33, the possessive pronoun is also understood.
The question is whether the word should be translated "women" or "wives," rather than "deaconesses." If "women," then deaconesses would be intended if it is not trying to say what all women should be like. If "wives," then it would be referring to the wives of the deacons.